> Ryan Delaney <ryan.delaney@gmail.com> writes: > > Why couldn't an RDBMS such as postgres interpret a SELECT that omits the GROUP > > BY as implicitly grouping by all the columns that aren't part of an aggregate?
I'm Mr. Curious today ...
Why would you think that such a thing is necessary or desirable? Simply add the columns to the GROUP BY clause and make the request unambiguous.
Where would the ambiguity be?
I waste an inordinate amount of time retyping select lists over into the group by list, or copying and pasting and then deleting the aggregate clauses. It is an entirely pointless exercise. I can't fault PostgreSQL for following the standard, but its too bad the standards aren't more sensible.
