On Thursday 06 March 2003 10:20 pm, you wrote:
> On Thu, 6 Mar 2003, Siva Kumar wrote:
> > On Thursday 06 March 2003 11:17 am, Stephan Szabo wrote:
> > > On Thu, 6 Mar 2003, Siva Kumar wrote:
> > > > Is it possible to have a column in Table-2 of Database-B to have a
> > > > foreign key constraint referencing Table-1 of Database-A?
> > >
> > > Not using the straight foreign key support (you might be able to put
> > > something together using dblink in your own triggers, but it'd probably
> > > be more trouble than it's worth)
> >
> > That is disappointing. We really do need this feature for our
> > application. I
>
> What are you planning to use it for (ie, why separate databases rather
> than something like separate schemas)
Our application is used by different companies for their operation and will be
accessible over internet. We want to have separate databases for each company
and the application will interact with all the databases to enable
buyer-supplier relationships etc. With this we can offer local systems for
large companies which can synchronize with the central server periodically.
Basically we want to ensure that the data is owned by the concerned companies,
and in case they want to break away from our service, we just take out their
database and give to them.
As far as I understand having separate schema will not server our purpose. We
will have to look at other options now it seems.
Best regards,
Siva
--
Ma Siva Kumar,
BSG LeatherLink,
http://www.leatherlink.net/
