Would this not create the potention for a dead lock if transaction1 is
never completed, and still active for an indefinate period of time?
On Thu, 2004-01-29 at 14:06, Tom Lane wrote:
> "Marc G. Fournier" <scrappy@hub.org> writes:
> > What happens if I abort on the first transaction? If I'm reading this
> > right, if Trans2 does the exact same as above, and COMMITs before Trans1
> > Aborts, the value of balance becomes +200 (Trans2 + Trans1) ... but what
> > happens when Trans1 ABORTS? Trans2 believes its COMMIT worked, but
> > ABORTng Trans1 will rollback to the original value, no?
>
> If trans2 is the second to get to the row, it will *wait* until trans1
> either commits or aborts, and then use the new or old version of the row
> accordingly. The scenario you are thinking of can't happen.
>
> regards, tom lane
>
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--
Chris Bowlby <chris@pgsql.com>
PostgreSQL Inc.
